First, I'm looking at the alog by Zach: https://alog.ligola.caltech.edu/aLOG/index.php?callRep=8674
I'm not sure how this measurement can be converted into RIN. Well, let's try. Assuming his measurement is done with the single bounce beam from an ITM,
and assuming this plot is already normalized for RIN, we may need to multiply the number on the plot by factor of two or so. Then it's about factor of 5 lower RIN
than the expected RIN. And in terms of R, it is 25 times lower.
